GATE PSYCHOLOGY 2026 solved
Q.1 “He often _____ the numbers. False claims are not going to help. Honesty _____ trust”, said the manager. Choose the option with the correct order of words to fill the blanks.
(A) exaggerates;
engenders
(B)
excels; encourages
(C)
aggravates; alleviates
(D)
diminishes; eliminates
2-In
the sequence of tiles shown below, the missing tile indicated by the question
mark should be
Ans B
Q.3
A school has 100 students distributed among 1st to 10th standards. Based on
this, which one of the following statements is always correct?
(A) There are at least 10
students who belong to the same standard.
(B)
There is at least one student in each standard.
(C)
There are at most 10 students in 10th standard.
(D)
The total number of students from 1st to 5th standards is at least 50.
Q.4
How many 3-digit numbers can be formed using three distinct single digit prime
numbers?
(A)
64
(B) 24
C)
12
(D)
4
Q.5
In a group of students, 10 students like Mathematics, 12 students like English,
4 students like both Mathematics and English, and 6 students like neither
Mathematics nor English. The number of students in the group is ____
(A)
18
(B)
20
(C) 24
(D) 32
Q.6
Charity : P :: Retaliation : Q Choose the appropriate pair of words P and Q
that fit the analogy.
(A)
P = Parsimonious; Q = Vengeful
(B)
P = Altruistic; Q = Amicable
(C)
P = Resentful; Q = Spiteful
(D) P = Magnanimous; Q = Vindictive
Q.7
A paper shown in Panel I is folded along the dashed lines (- - -) to construct
a cube. The shaded regions shown in Panel I appear on the outer surface of the
cube. Referring to cubes shown in Panel II, which one of the options is
correct?
(A) Only (i) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
(B) Only (ii) can correspond to the unfolded
cube in Panel I.
C)
Both (i) and (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
(D)
Neither (i) nor (ii) can correspond to the unfolded cube in Panel I.
Q-8 Consider the cube shown below with its 8 corners labelled a, b, c, d, e, f, g, and h. The figure is representative. All corners are to be colored such that any two corners that are connected by an edge must be of different colors. The minimum number of colors required to achieve this is ________
(A)
8
(B)
4
(C)
3
(D) 2
Q.9
Four hills H1, H2, H3, and H4 are present in an area. The following
observations are made about them:
i.
Neither H2 nor H3 is the easternmost hill.
ii. Neither H2 nor H3 is the westernmost hill.
iii.
Neither the easternmost hill nor the westernmost hill is the southernmost hill.
iv. Two hills are located to the west of H2.
v.
The
southernmost hill has at least two hills to its east. The southernmost hill is
________.
(A)
H1
(B)
H2
(C) H3
(D)
H4
Q-10
As shown in the figure, circle 𝐶1 with center 𝑂1 and radius 𝑟1 touches
the square 𝑉𝑊𝑋𝑌 at points 𝑃 and 𝑄 while
circle 𝐶2 with center 𝑂2 and radius 𝑟2 touches
the square 𝑉𝑊𝑋𝑌 at points 𝑅 and 𝑆. The two
circles touch each other at 𝑇.
Ans C
Q.11
Aman, Beena, Chiranjeevi and Dhiman are four siblings. Each of them is an
expert in one of the performing arts, namely, dance, theatre, guitar and
percussion, not necessarily in that order. The dancer is taller than the
theatre expert. Aman is taller than Chiranjeevi. The percussionist is taller
than Beena but shorter than Aman. Beena is shorter than the dancer. The
guitarist is not the tallest. Dhiman is shorter than both, guitarist and
Chiranjeevi. What is the expertise of Aman?
(A) Dance
(B)
Theatre
(C)
Guitar
(D)
Percussion
Q.12
Let ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 be an
isosceles triangle with the base 𝐴𝐵 of length 8
units. Let 𝐶𝐷 be a perpendicular of length 4 units
drawn from the vertex 𝐶 onto the base 𝐴𝐵 and 𝐴𝐶 = 𝐵𝐶. Then,
which of the following is the set of values of the angles (in degrees) 𝐶𝐴𝐵, 𝐴𝐵𝐶, 𝐵𝐶𝐴
respectively?
(A) 45,45,90
(B)
100,40,40
(C)
90,45,45
(D)
40,40,100
Q.13
In the given passage, fill in the blanks with most suitable set of given words:
The future must no longer be___ by the past. While, the effects of the past are
still with us, each day is a new___. Therefore, one should ___from solely
believing in destiny and crave towards charting their own path of success with
grit and labour. Positive_______ is imperative.
(A) Determined,
beginning, refrain, anticipation
(B)
Fascinated, one, include, physiology
(C)
Explored, suffering, content, psychiatry
(D)
Marred, life, hinder, labyrinth
Q.14
Indian society is experiencing a boom in pet culture, where people are becoming
responsible caretakers of pets rather than merely providing food and shelter.
They no longer like to identify themselves as ‘pet-owners’ but rather as
‘pet-parents’. This means that there is an emotional transaction rather than a
utilitarian one. Which of the following weaken(s) the argument presented in the
given passage?
(A) Some social media influencers are using their pets
only for popularity.
(B)
Food, medicines and clothes for pets are becoming easily available.
(C) Pet owners are expecting some provision for tax rebate.
(D) In today’s stressful times, pets provide
emotional support.
Q.15
Three statements, S1, S2 and S3 are given, followed with 4 conclusions, C1, C2,
C3 and C4. S1: Hostel authorities organised a special lunch on 01-02-26 during
12 noon to 3 pm, for those residents of the Hostel, who paid hostel mess fees
on time. S2: Hostel authorities issued a notice that, since elections for Mess
Council is held during 4-5 pm of 01-02-26, residents of the Hostel who are
contesting the elections need to stay away from the hostel since morning till 5
pm. S3: Hostel residents who were eligible to have special lunch, had it on
01-02-26.
C1:
Residents who did not have special lunch on 01-02-26, either did not pay hostel
mess fees on time or were contesting elections.
C2:
Residents having special lunch on 01-02-26, were either not contesting
elections or had paid hostel mess fees on time.
C3:
Residents who are contesting elections need not care about paying mess fees.
C4:
Residents who have paid hostel mess fees on time could join special lunch only
if they are not contesting elections. Which of the conclusion(s) is/are
incorrect?
(A)
Only one among C1, C2, C3 and C4 is incorrect.
(B)
C1 and C2 are incorrect.
(C) C2 and C3 are incorrect. (
D)
C3 and C4 are incorrect
Q.16
Six statements, S1 to S6, are given. S1: All GATE candidates are engineers. S2:
Some GATE candidates are CAT candidates. S3: All GRE candidates are GATE
candidates. S4: All engineers are GRE candidates. S5: Some CAT candidates are
GRE candidates. S6: Some CAT candidates are engineers. Based on S1-S6,
following options provide a set of three statements, followed by a fourth
statement. Identify the option(s) where the fourth statement can be necessarily
inferred from the set of three statements.
(A)
{S1, S2, S3} => S5
(B) {S4, S1, S2} => S5
(C)
{S6, S1, S3} => S5
(D)
{S4, S3, S1} => S6
Q.17
Four couples M-N, O-P, R-L, S-E meet to have a dinner together on an
eightseater rectangular dining table with four seats each on opposite sides.
The men are named as M, O, R, S. Two of the men, O, R, sit on the two corners
of one side of the table and M sits beside R. Further, none of the couples
occupy seats opposite to each other. However, a person sits adjacent to the
seat opposite to his/her spouse. Based on the information, which of the
following conclusions can be drawn?
(A) R sits opposite to N and S sits opposite to P.
(B) R sits opposite to P and O sits opposite
to N.
(C)
S sits opposite to N and O sits opposite to L.
(D) M sits opposite to L and O sits opposite to E.
Q.18
Me and my spouse have a big family, comprising 8 females and 6 males. We have
two sons and two daughters, of whom the eldest is unmarried. Out of my two
grandsons and three granddaughters, only one grandson is a single child. His
mother is my younger daughter. Which of my children necessarily has two
daughters?
(A)
None of my sons
(B) One of my sons
(C)
One of my daughters
(D)
Elder daughter
Q.19
Given the first four terms 30, 105, 385, 1001 in a sequence, which amongst the
following is the fifth term of the sequence?
(A) 2341
(B) 2431
(C)
2571
(D)
2751
Q.20
Three players named Arun, Babita and Chandu play a game by tossing an unbiased
coin in turn whose rules are as follows: Initially each player has 100 candies.
If the tossing of this coin results in a ‘head’ then the player who tosses
receives 10 candies from each of the other two players, whereas, if the toss
results in a ‘tail’ then the player who tosses has to give away 20 candies to
each of the other two players. A player with the highest number of candies at
the end will be the winner. The game is started by Arun, followed by Babita and
finally stopped after Chandu’s turn. Given that Arun is the only winner, which
of the following hold(s) true?
(A) Arun has 90 candies more than Chandu
(B) Both Babita and Chandu have the same number of candies
(C) Arun has 90 candies more than Babita
(D)
Babita and Chandu together have 120 candies
Q.21
Choose the correct sequence of sentences so that they form a coherent
paragraph:
P.
However, in the context of texts dealing with science or engineering, this
condition may not be applicable.
Q.
One can infer, that there is something called discipline fidelity and within
this aspect, content, language, structure and scope of a text may vary.
R.
In the meaning-making process of a text, it is not always logic that is
central.
S.
Most of the times, it is the expression of the experience that supersedes the
structure and argument.
Which
of the following options is/are correct and giving the most appropriate order
and meaning to the sentence?
(A) RSPQ
(B)
QRSP
(C)
RSQP
(D)
SPRQ
Q.22
Mental health is a global concern, especially among the youth. During the
Covid19 pandemic, when schools and colleges were operating online, students
were left with no option but to stay at home leading to negligible social
interaction. Several studies indicate that even when offline classes have now
resumed post Covid-19 pandemic, these students are finding it difficult to
establish social connect leading to mental health issues. To deal with this situation,
schools and colleges are trying hard to implement different strategies to
combat their student’s mental health depending on their unique culture, overall
strength, and resources. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from
the above passage?
(A)
India is a young nation.
(B) Different schools and colleges will have their own way to
tackle the issue of mental health.
(C)
A combination of online and offline class is good for students.
(D) Social connect is important for mental health.
Q.23
On the basis of syntax and grammar, identify the incorrect sentence(s).
I.
Doctors have found high levels of cerebrospinal fluid in certain cases of
cerebral palsy around the world. They also suggested its abnormal impact on
speech and muscle movement.
II.
Doctors have found high levels of cerebrospinal fluid in certain cases of
cerebral palsy around the world which suggests the abnormal impact on speech
and muscle movement.
III.
Having found high levels of cerebrospinal fluid in certain cases of cerebral palsy
around the world, doctors are suggesting abnormal impact on speech and muscle
movement.
IV.
Having found high levels of cerebrospinal fluid in certain cases of cerebral
palsy around the world, doctors suggested its abnormal impact on speech and
muscle movement.
(A)
I
(B) II
(C) III
(D)
IV
Q.24
In a cricket match amongst 7 friends, named P1 – P7, P1 scored maximum
individual runs of 25 and P7 scored minimum individual run of 0. No two friends
had the same score. The median and average runs scored were 15 and 12.57, not
necessarily in that order. Two players, P2 and P3, who scored more than median
but less than maximum, scored less than 40 runs together. One player scored
double the sum of non-zero scores of two players. What could be the possible
value(s) of the second highest score?
(A)
18
(B) 20
(C) 21
(D)
22
Q.25
A police station has six personnel comprising an inspector (I) and five
constables (𝐶1, 𝐶2, 𝐶3, 𝐶4, 𝐶5). Normally, a ‘raid team’ of two, three, or four
members is formed depending upon the nature of the raid. As per rule, it is
mandatory that the inspector is part of raid team. Number of distinct raid
teams that can be formed is ______25____________. (Answer in integer)
Q.26
A man visits four relatives on a day. He purchases some sweets and gives a part
of it to the first relative. Next, he purchases the same number of sweets he is
left with after he visited his first relative. He repeats this process while
visiting his other relatives. Finally, he gives all the sweets to his fourth
relative. It is known that he gives equal number of sweets to all the relatives
and is left with no sweets after the fourth relative. Assuming that he
initially purchased more than 20 sweets, the minimum number of sweets he gave
to each relative is _____16_________. (Answer in
integer)
Q.27
_____is the white fatty layer covering the axon that increases the speed of
conduction of nerve impulses.
(A) Cell membrane
(B)
Bulb
(C) Myelin sheath
(D) Cleft
Q.28
EEG is a record of the electrical activities of nerve cells. The range of
frequencies of EEG is _____Hz.
(A) 1 - 50
(B)
1 - 20
(C)
1 - 10
(D)
1 - 3
Q.29
Which of the following is true about contours in visual form perception?
(A) Contours are formed due to brightness difference between the
object and background.
(B)
Contours never provide shape to the objects.
(C)
Reversible figures do not involve contours.
(D)
Camouflage works when contours do not break
Q.
30 Which of the following statements is not true?
(A)
We remember the inferences made at the time of encoding and storage.
(B)
Modifications in memory can happen due to constructive processes.
(C)
Visual images are partial representations of the world around us.
(D) The organizational encoding can never be inherent in the
input.
Q.
31 Which of the following is not related to Adler’s Individual Psychology?
(A)
Inferiority complex
(B)
Style of life
(C) Birth-order is not a determinant of personality
(D)
Compensation and overcompensation
Q.
32 Which of the following conceptualization postulates that there are two codes
and two systems of storage of information – imagery code and verbal code?
(A)
Functional propositional hypothesis
(B)
Conceptual equivalency hypothesis
(C)
Conceptualization based on mental rotation experiments
(D) Dual–coding hypothesis
Q.
33 Which of the following is not true regarding Minnesota Multiphasic
Personality Inventory (MMPI)?
(A)
Empirical approach was used for test construction.
(B)
It has clinical scales.
(C) It can be used for the purpose of
diagnosis.
(D) It does not have any validity scales.
Q.
34 Which of the following is not associated with Roger’s Self Theory?
(A)
Phenomenal field
(B)
Real self
(C) Self-efficacy
(D)
Ideal self
Q.
35 Who proposed the idea of ‘decision frames’?
(A) Bruner
(B) Tversky and Kahneman
(C) Johnson-Laird
(D)
Chapman
Q.36
Ethical considerations in research do not include:
(A)
Confidentiality of participants’ responses
(B)
Human dignity of participants
(C)
Participants’ freedom to participate in research
(D) Social and legal justice for participants Organizing
Institute: IIT Guwahati Page
Q.37 Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is associated with:
(A) Allostatic load
(B)
Allostatic load after extracting the effect of traumatic memory
(C)
Traumatic memory after extracting the allostatic load
(D)
Injustice faced by the trauma survivors in everyday life years after facing the
initial traumatic event
Q.38
Transformational leadership is marked by which one of the following:
(A)
Strict discipline imposed on the followers
(B) Reverence of the followers for the leader and his/her vision
(C) Machiavellian approach
(D)
Both democratic and authoritarian leadership styles
Q39
Assertion: Mixed-method studies in psychology may include only
qualitativequalitative mixing. Reason: Mixed-method approaches are based on
diverse scientific paradigms that must include positivist (natural science)
paradigm.
(A) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(B)
Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(C)
Both Assertion and Reason are correct.
(D)
Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Q.40
A simple random sampling is one that satisfies:
Condition
A: Each member of the population has an
equal chance of being selected.
Condition
B: Selection of every possible
combination of desired number of members is equally likely.
Condition
C: Selection of a sample is based on
pre-decided criteria.
(A)
Condition A and Condition C
(B)
Condition C and Condition B
(C) Condition B and Condition A
(D)
Only Condition A
Q.41
Kohlberg argues that moral reasoning passes through different levels as people
mature. In one of the levels, he proposes that the individual’s reasoning fits
what many societies consider to be acceptable moral rules. Which level is this?
(A)
Pre-conventional level
(B) Conventional level
(C)
Post-conventional level
(D)
Adult level
Q.42
The nature-nurture debate concerns the ______________ impact of heredity and
environment.
(A) Relative
(B)
Absolute
(C)
Linear
(D)
Geometric
Q.43
Find the value of Standard Error when: (i) Standard Deviation of the population
= 10 (ii) Sample size = 100
(A)
root 10
(B) 10.01
(C) 1
(D)root
3
Q.44
Calculate the value of Standard Deviation using the following scores: Scores:
15, 12, 14, 11, 13
(A) root2
(B)root
3
(C)
2
(D)
1.01
Q.45
Match the following:
P
White matter i The folded sheet of
neurons in each hemisphere
Q
Spikes ii Fiber tracts underneath the cortex
R
Gray matter iii Grooves in the
cerebral cortex
S
Fissure iv Electrical nerve
impulses
(A) P-i, Q-ii, R-iii, S-iv
(B)
P-ii, Q-iii, R-i, S-iv
(C) P-ii, Q-iv, R-i, S-iii
(D)
P-ii, Q-i, R-iv, S-iii
Q.46
Lesion studies show that _____hypothalamus is an excitatory region for hunger,
and ______hypothalamus is involved in its cessation.
(A) Lateral, Ventromedial
(B)
Lateral, Central
(C)
Central, Ventromedial
(D)
Ventromedial, Lateral
Q.47
Assertion:
P-
The test gives similar results even though different people administer it.
Q-
Different forms of the test are given, and the same person takes the test at
two or more different times.
Given
P and Q, which of the following is correct?
(A) The test is valid.
(B) The test is reliable.
(C)
The test is valid and reliable, both.
(D)
The test is neither valid nor reliable.
Q.48
Assertion:
P-
The reliability of a test is 0.90.
Q-
The validity of the same test is 0.60.
Given
P and Q, which of the following is correct?
(A) The test is highly reliable and valid.
(B)
The test is highly reliable but not valid.
(C)
The test is not reliable but valid.
(D)
The test is neither reliable nor valid.
Q-49
In Wechsler intelligence scales, people may express IQ in standard deviation
units where, X= individual’s score, M= mean, and SD= standard deviation. Given
this, standard score (SC) can be computed using the formula___.
Ans A
Q.50 Match the following:
P
Standard error of estimate i Score range from one through nine.
Q
Statistical significance ii Standard error of differences between
predicted values and true values of a measure.
R
Stanine score iii The
probability that the population mean falls within the limits determined from a
sample.
S
Standard deviation iv Root mean square deviation
(A) P-i, Q-iii, R-ii, S-iv
(B) P-ii, Q-iii, R-i, S-iv
(C)
P-ii, Q-iii, R-iv, S-i
(D)
P-iii, Q-i, R-ii-, S-iv
Q.51
Which of the following is/are NOT correct about Sternberg and Lubart’s (1996)
theory of creativity?
(A) It was developed using the univariate approach.
(B)
It was developed using the multivariate approach.
(C)
Two facets of creativity were intellectual style and personality among others
in the theory.
(D) According to the theory, creativity is a single trait or
ability.
Q.52
Which of the following is/are true about endorphin?
(A) A substance produced by the body
(B)
A synthetic substance
(C) Involved in perception of pain reduction
(D)
Involved in increasing the feeling of pain
Q.53
Which of the following represent(s) theoretical explanations of Classical
Conditioning?
(A) Spontaneous recovery
(B)
Response substitution
(C)
Stimulus generalization
(D) Information and expectation
Q.54 Consider the following Null-Hypothesis:
“The mean of Treatment Group is not different from that of the Control Group”.
When this is not accepted, which of the following is/are true?
(A) The probability of wrong rejection of the Null-Hypothesis is
still there, but relatively very low.
(B)
Wrong rejection of the Null-Hypothesis is absolutely not possible.
(C)
Level of significance (α) must be less than or equal to 0.05.
(D) Level of significance (α) may be greater than or equal to
0.01
Q.55
In ethnography, “thick description” is associated with:
(A) Meaning structures of
a culture-sharing group
(B) Clifford Geertz
(C)
Sigmund Freud
(D) Co-construction of meanings during research interactions
Q.56
According to Central Limit Theorem, for a fixed sample size:
(A)
Sample means may or may not be normally distributed.
(B)
Both Type-I and Type-II errors must be low.
(C) Relative frequency of sample means that are closer to the
population mean is higher.
(D) Relative frequency of the sample means that are farther from
the population mean is lower.
Q.57
Which of the following is/are true about multiple regression analysis?
(A) It is calculated by analyzing all possible
simple bivariate regression co-efficients based on the data set.
(B)
It is calculated by analyzing all possible simple univariate co-efficients
based on the data set.
(C) Effects of other predictor variables are partialled out from
a specific predictor variable while calculating its regression co-efficient.
(D) Both standardized and unstandardized co-efficients can be
calculated.
Q.58
Which of the following is/are NOT true about the factorial designs of ANOVA?
(A) In terms of relationship among the independent variables
(IVs) and the dependent variable (DV), it is the same as multiple regression.
(B) Experimental Groups
must include different participants.
(C) Control and Experimental Groups must include unmatched
participants.
(D)
Both Main Effects and Interaction Effects may be calculated.
Q.59
In cognitive behavioral therapy, which of the following type(s) of “faulty
thinking” may be identified by the therapist?
(A)
Compulsions
(B) Arbitrary inference
(C) Dichotomization
(D) Maximization and minimization
Q.60
According to Moscovici’s Conversion Theory (1980) which of the following
statements is/are true for majority influence?
(A) Majority influence
generates a comparison process (focus on relationship between source and
target).
(B) Conflict is resolved by overt compliance to majority
position in public.
(C)
Triggers validation process (closer attention to the issue).
(D)
Target is unlikely to agree with minority in public, for fear of being labelled
“deviant”.
Q.61
The probability that a recipient will critically evaluate arguments contained
in a message (i.e., elaboration likelihood) is determined by both
_________________________ and _________________________.
(A) Processing motivation
(B) Processing ability
(C)
Processing error
(D)
Processing validity
Q.62
Cultural differences are partly explained by difference in
_______________________ and _____________________.
(A) Self-construal
(B)
Group presence
(C)
Ecological conditions
(D) Shared norms
Q.63
Gordon W. Allport proposed that contact will only be successful in reducing
prejudice when it takes place under certain optimal conditions. He suggested
that intergroup contact will reduce prejudice if:
(A) It has
acquaintance potential.
(B) It takes place under the conditions of equal status.
(C) It involves
co-operation towards a common goal.
(D)
It involves simply bringing people from different groups together.
Q.64
Which of the following psychologists is/are associated with the
conceptualization of emotions?
(A) Leon Festinger
(B) Rom Harre
(C) Paul Ekman
(D)
E. B. Titchener
Q.65
Which among the following is/are associated with the three psychiatric
movements?
(A) Philip Pinel
(B) Sigmund Freud
(C) Community mental health





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